Biology 2024

(1) Convergent evolution         

(2) Divergent evolution

(3) Parallel evolution

(4) Retrogressive evolution

(1) Natural selection   

(2) Genetic drift

(3) Gene pool            

(4) Gene migration

(1) Homo erectus          

(2) Dryopithecus 

(3) Australopithecines  

(4) Ramapithecus

(1) Four

(2) Nine

(3) Two

(4) Eight

(A)The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.

(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.

(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.

(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.

(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A), (B), (C) and (D) only  

(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 

(3) (A), (C) and (E) only  

(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

6. Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) 

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 

(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) 

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

 ANS A

(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.

(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.

(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia. 

(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.

(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.

Choose the answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only  

(2) (B) and (E) only

(3) (D) only   

(4) (A) and (D) onl

8. Match List-I with List-II : 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) 

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

 ANS D

(1) Diacetyl morphine   

(2) Cocaine

(3) Benzodiazepine      

(4) Amphetamine

(1) T-Cells   

(2) B-Cells

(3)    -Cells   

(4)    -Cells

11. In sewage treatment, flocs are :

(1) the solids that settle during sedimentation.

(2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.

(3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.

(4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.

 ANS C

12. Match List-I with List-II : 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

 ANS B

(1) Trichoderma   

(2) Dragonflies

(3) Ladybird   

(4) Silverfis

(1) Identification  

(2) Amplification 

(3) Fermentation   

(4) Purification

(1) Fungi – Chitinase  

(2) Algae – Methylase

(3) Plant cells – Cellulase  

(4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

(A) Incubation of DNA with bacterial cell on ice

(B) Treatment with divalent cations

(C) Heat shock treatment

(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate

(E) Placed them again on ice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)  

(2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D) 

(3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)  

(4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.

(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. 

(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.

(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.

Choose the answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) and (C) only   

(2) (A) and (B) only

(3) (B) and (C) only   

(4) (A), (C) and (D) only

(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk. 

(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs.

(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.

(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) and (C) only   

(2) (C) and (D) only

(3) (A) and (D) only   

(4) (B) and (C) only

19. Match List-I with List-II : 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) 

(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 

(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 

(4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

 ANS C

(1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee 

(2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee

(3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee

(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

(1) Alkaline pH of the gut.

(2) Acidic pH of the gut.

(3) Acidic pH of saliva.

(4) Alkaline pH of saliva.

22. Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 

(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 

(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

 ANS B

(1) Expanding 

(2) Declining 

(3) Stable 

(4) S-shaped

(1) eliminating the inferior species.

(2) resource partitioning.

(3) interacting with each other symbiotically.

(4) changing the area of grazing.

(1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus. 

(2) organic nutrients from humus.

(3) inorganic nutrients from humus.

(4) organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

(1) Forests 

(2) Grassland 

(3) Desert 

(4) Sea

(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.

(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.

(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching. 

(D) Humification follows mineralisation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (B) and (D) only  

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B) and (C) only   

(4) (A) and (D) only

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 

(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 

(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 

(4)  (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.

Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease ?

(1) Chlamydiasis   

(2) Filariasis

(3) Genital herpes   

(4) Trichomoniasis

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

(1) They are considered safe during the first trimester.

(2) It was legalised in India from 1971.

(3) MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific sounds.

(4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.

Match List-I with List-II : 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)  

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) 

(4)  (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.

Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females ?

(1) IUDs

(2) Lactational amenorrhea 

(3) Vasectomy

(4) Condoms

India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal. These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation. Creating awareness among the people about various reproduction-related aspects and providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.

‘Saheli’ – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by :

(1) AIIMS   

(2) NBRI

(3) CDRI    

(4) NBPGR

Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community ?

(1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.

(2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.

(3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its unstability.

(4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.

Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

In ‘rivet popper hypothesis’ the ‘rivet’ signifies :

(1) Key species   

(2) Endemic species

(3) Community   

(4) Species

Read the passage carefully and give the answers to the next five questions :

Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

36. The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community, was ____________ .

(1) Paul Ehrlich   

(2) David Tilman 

(3) Robert May   

(4) Edward Wilson

 ANS B

37. Read the passage carefully and give the answers to the next five questions :

Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group ? 

(1) Reptiles   

(2) Fishes

(3) Insects   

(4) Mammals

 ANS B

Does the number of species in a community really matter to the functioning of the ecosystem ? This is a question for which ecologists have not been able to give a definitive answer. For many decades, ecologists believed that communities with more species, generally, tend to be more stable than those with less species. According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) (2004), the total number of plant and animal species described so far is more than 1.5 million.

The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics except :

(1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.

(2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish.

(3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.

(4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity.

(1) Central cell and generative cell

(2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell

(3) Vegetative cell and generative cell 

(4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

40. Match List-I with List-II : 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

(3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

 ANS B

(1) Double fusion   

(2) Triple fusion 

(3) Parthenogenesis   

(4) Apomixis

(1) 10 – 12   

(2) 25 – 30 

(3) 30 – 35   

(4) 15 – 20

(1) ‘X’ chromosome of egg

(2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm 

(3) Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm 

(4) Health of mother

(A) Ovum   

(B) Oogonia

(C) Primary oocyte   

(D) Secondary oocyte 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (C), (B), (D), (A)   

(2) (B), (C), (D), (A) 

(3) (D), (C), (A), (B)   

(4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(1) Pink and white flowers

(2) Inflated and constricted pods

(3) Axial and terminal flowers

(4) Green and yellow pods

(1) Polyploidy   

(2) Euploidy

(3) Aneuploidy   

(4) Autopolyploidy

Genotype :  Phenotype

(A) Hb^A Hb^A : Diseased phenotype 

(B) Hb^A Hb^S : Diseased phenotype 

(C) Hb^S Hb^S : Diseased phenotype 

(D) Hb^S Hb^A : Carrier of disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(1) (C) and (D) only

(2) (A) and (C) only

(3) (B), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A), (B), and (C) only

48. Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) 

 ANS B

(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.

(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.

(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphodiester linkage.

(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional - OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose. 

(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B) and (E) only   

(2) (D) and (E) only

(3) (B) and (D) only         

(4) (B) and (E) only

(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease

(B) Isolation of DNA

(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe

(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)   

(2) (A), (D), (C), (B)

(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)   

(4) (C), (A), (B), (D)