Chemistry 2025 Previous Year Paper
| Q1. Which one of the following compounds is achiral?
(A) Propan-2-ol (B) Butan-2-ol (C) 2-Chlorobutane (D) 2,3-Dihydroxybutanal |
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Q2. What is the first step in acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohol? (A) Removal of OH (B) Removal of water (C) Elimination of proton (D) Protonation of alcohol |
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Q3. |
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Q4. |
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Q5. |
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Q6. Which of the following compounds can be prepared by Sandmeyer's reaction? (A) Chlorobenzene (B) Bromobenzene (C) Cyanobenzene (D) Fluorobenzene Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (C) only (B) (A), (B) and (D) only (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) (B), (C) and (D) only |
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| Q7. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) for weak field ligand Δo <P (B) CN- is a weak field ligand (C) weak field ligand yield low spin complex (D) I is a strong field ligand |
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Q8. Which one of the following statements regarding electrolytic solution is not correct? (A) conductivity of solution depends upon the size of ions. (B) conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution. (C) conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution. (D) conductivity depends on the temperature. |
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Q9. Fehling solution gives red precipitate with: (A) Aromatic aldehyde (B) Ketone (C) Aliphatic Aldehyde (D) α-Hydroxy aromatic ketone |
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| Q10. How does the osmotic pressure of a solution vary with the temperature?
(A) decreases with increase in temperature (B) remains constant (C) increases with increase in temperature (D) first increases then decreases with the increase in temperature Q11.The partial vapour pressure of an electrolyte at the following concentrations, decreases in the order: (A) 0.5 M (B) 0.1 M (C) 0.05 M (D) 0.001 M Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B), (C), (D) (B) (A), (C), (B), (D) (C) (B), (A), (D), (C) (D) (D), (C), (B), (A) |
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Q12. Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) (III), (B) (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) (III), (B) (I), (C) - (IV), (D) (II) (C) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) - (III) (D) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) - (II) |
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Q13. |
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| Q14. Which cell is rechargeable?
(A) Nickel-cadmium cell (B) Daniell cell (C) Mercury cell (D) Dry cell |
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Q15. |
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Q16. |
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| Q17. Reaction of benzaldehyde with acetophenone in the presence of methanolic NaOH yields a major stable product as:
(A) cis-1,3-diphenylprop-2-en-1-one (B) 1,3-diphenyl propanone (C) trans-1,3-diphenylprop-2-en-1-one (D) Benzophenone |
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| Q18. Name the cell which is used in hearing aids.
(A) Mercury cell (B) Fuel cell (C) Dry cell (D) Lead storage cell |
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Q19. |
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Q20. |
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| Q21. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling points:
(A) Bromomethane (B) Bromoform (C) Chloromethane (D) Dibromomethane Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B), (C), (D) (B) (A), (C), (B), (D) (C) (B), (A), (D), (C) (D) (C), (A), (D), (B) |
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Q22. |
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| Q23. When we consider a balanced chemical equation of an elementary reaction, which statement is applicable on it?
(A) Molecularity can never be zero (B) Order is less than molecularity (C) Order is equal to molecularity (D) Order is greater than the molecularity Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (D) only (B) (A), (B) and (C) only (C) (A) and (C) only (D) (B), (C) and (D) only |
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Q24. Match the coordination compounds given in List-I with the central metal atoms given in List-II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV) (C) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (III) (D) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) - (II) |
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Q25. Match List-I with List-II:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (C) (A) (II), (B) (I), (C) (IV), (D) - (III) (D) (A) (III), (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) - (II) |
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Q26. |
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Q27. |
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Q28. Carbylamine reaction is used as a test for: (A) aromatic primary amine (B) aliphatic primary amine (C) aliphatic secondary amine (D) substituted aromatic secondary amine Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (B), (C) and (D) only (B) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (C) (A), (B) and (C) only (D) (A) and (B) only |
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Q29. For a fixed volume of liquid solvent, the solubility of a gaseous solute depends upon: (A) Nature of the gas. (B) Pressure at constant temperature. (C) Temperature at constant pressure. (D) Nature of solvent. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (D) only (B) (A), (B) and (C) only (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) (B), (C) and (D) only |
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Q30. |
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Q31. When we consider an inert electrode in a cell; which statement is not suitable for it? (A) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction. (B) It does not participate in the cell reaction. (C) It provides surface for redox reaction. (D) It provides surface for conduction of electrons. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (D) only (B) (A), (B) and (C) only (C) Only (C) (D) (A) and (C) only |
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Q32. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid? (A) Histidine (B) Phenylalanine (C) Lysine (D) Alanine |
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Q33. When benzene diazonium chloride is treated with halogen acid in the presence of copper powder, the reaction is referred to as: (A) Finkelstein reaction (B) Gatterman reaction (C) Sandmeyer's reaction. (D) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction |
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Q34. The reaction of phenol with chloroform in the presence of sodium hydroxide gives: (A) Salicyclic acid (B) Acetylsalicylic acid (C) Salicylaldehyde (D) mixture of ortho and para chlorophenols |
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Q35. |
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Q36. |
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Q37. |
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Q38. When a catalyst is used in a reaction, the heat absorbed or evolved during the reaction: (A) increases (B) may increase or decrease (C) remains unchanged (D) decreases |
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Q39. Aldehydes and ketones undergo: (A) Nucleophilic substitution reaction (B) Nucleophilic addition reaction (C) Free radical reaction (D) Elimination reaction |
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Q40. |
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Read the passage carefully and answer the questions Nearly all the transition elements display typical metallic properties such as high tensile strength, ductility, malleability, high thermal and electrical conductivity and metallic lustre. The transition metals (with the exception of Zn, Cd and Hg) are very hard and have low volatility. Their melting and boiling points are high. They have high enthalpies of atomization. Ions of the same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number. However, the variation within a series is quite small. The filling of 4f before 5d orbital results in a regular decrease in atomic radii called Lanthanoid contraction which essentially compensates for the expected increase in atomic size with increasing atomic number. The net result of the lanthanoid contraction is that the second and the third d series exhibit similar radii (e.g., Zr 160 pm, Hf 159 pm) and have very similar physical and chemical properties. There is an increase in ionisation enthalpy along each series of the transition elements from left to right. The first ionisation enthalpy, in general, increases, but the magnitude of the increase in the second and third ionisation enthalpies for the successive elements, is much higher along a series. One of the notable features of a transition elements is the great variety of oxidation states these may show in their compounds. Q41. |
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Q42. |
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Q43. In the first transition series of elements (Sc to Zn), which element show least enthalpy of atomization? (A) V (B) Sc (C) Mn (D) Zn |
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Q44. Metallic radii of some transition elements are as follows: Fe: 126 pm; Co: 125 pm; Ni: 125 pm; Cu: 128 pm Which of these elements will have highest density? (A) Fe (B) Ni (C) Co (D) Cu |
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Q45. Atomic number of Fe, Co, Ni and Cu are 26, 27, 28 and 29 respectively. Which among them is expected to possess the highest value for the second ionization enthalpy? (A) Ni (B) Cu (C) Co (D) Fe |
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Read the passage carefully and answer the questions Carbohydrates such as cane sugar, glucose, starch etc. belong to a class of naturally occurring organic compounds. Structurally these are polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones or the compounds which produce such units on hydrolysis. Carbohydrates which are sweet in taste are called sugars. Theses sugars can be reducing or non-reducing. Monosaccharides cannot be hydrolyzed to simpler units whereas Oligosaccharides yield two to ten monosaccharide units on hydrolysis. Polysaccharides yield large number of monosaccharide units on hydrolysis. This class of biomolecules is essential for living systems as they serve as storage molecules in plants and animals. In addition, they provide raw materials for important industries like furniture, textiles, paper, lacquers and breweries. Two aldopentose form important constituents of nucleic acids. Carbohydrates are also called saccharides (Greek: sakcharon which means sugar). Sugar which is used in household and in milk also comes under this class of biomolecules. Q46. Which of the following is incorrect for glucose? (A) It is named as D (-) glucose (B) A reducing sugar (C) It is an aldose. (D) Six membered cyclic structure is called pyranose |
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Q47. Sucrose on hydrolysis yields: (A) Glucose and fructose (B) Two molecules of glucose (C) Glucose and galactose (D) Galactose and Fructose |
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Q48. Reducing sugars respond to: (A) Tollen's reagent (B) Fehling's Reagent (C) Both Tollen's and Fehling's reagent (D) Schiff's Reagent |
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Q49. Among below given carbohydrates, which one is not a polysaccharide? (A) Starch (B) Cellulose (C) Glycogen (D) Ribose |
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Q50. Which sugar is known as milk sugar? (A) Glucose (B) Galactose (C) Lactose (D) Sucrose |


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